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Tonality and modality.

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    #16
    On the contrary, Quijote. I think the subject is asking for someone to shed light on it. Up to this point nobody seems to have a clue as to why tonality was left behind by the mainstream of contemporary music. I shyly proposed that it was a natural development, which does not explain much. Peter seems to imply that atonality [atonalism?] goes against our own nature. For Eric Salzman, quoted above, equal temperament, chromaticism and modulation inevitably led to the breakdown of tonality. These seem sensible words, even if he is copying from some other.

    Equal temperament has more to do with theory. A fiddler continuously modulating one fifth above (that is, the interval exactly represented by a ratio of 3/2), from C to C#, will have the open chords of his instrument as a reference, and his ear will make the necessary adjustments. But theory has to integrate with practice, so equal temperament is a factor that must go beside the other two. Now if somebody, not me, studies the Tristan, he will see chromaticism and modulation working against tonality. Why did Wagner not follow on the same track after this, is something I do not understand. Maybe it was the same thing with Beethoven after the violence he did to rhythm in the Eroica.

    Schoenberg, in trying to justify his system, must have written some interesting things.
    Last edited by Enrique; 02-07-2013, 01:03 AM.

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